CAT 50 Day Streak Day 27

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CAT 50 Day Streak – Day 27

30 questions across VARC, DILR & QA · +3 for a correct answer · −1 for a wrong MCQ · no negative marking for TITA

0/30Attempted

0Correct

0Wrong

0Score / 90

VARC · Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension

Q1 – Q10 0/10

Passage · Q1 – Q4

Americans spend billions of dollars each year on books and seminars claiming to help people change their personalities. These books are built on the assumptions that personality can change, and that changing personality is good: Altering the basics of who you are will make you a better, healthier, happier person. Last week, I wrote about how the latest science of personality suggests that personality can indeed change—either through natural maturation, new responsibilities, or intentional strategies. But would changing your personality actually make you happier?

Recently, a series of studies in Australia looked to see whether changes in personality were associated with increases in life satisfaction. The series drew on the country’s HILDA Survey (Household, Income and Labour Dynamics in Australia), which annually assesses the personality, life satisfaction, positive affect, and negative affect of a large, nationally representative sample of Australia’s population. In one of the studies, researchers examined the data from 11,104 Australians, ages 18 to 79, over the course of four years. They found that increases in extraversion, conscientiousness, and agreeableness were all associated with increased life satisfaction, whereas increases in neuroticism were associated with decreased life satisfaction.

Another study, conducted on more than 8,000 Australians, found that personality changes during this same time period occurred as often as changes in socio-economic factors, such as income, unemployment, and marital status. Together, these two studies add to a growing body of literature suggesting that personality changes are related to changes in life satisfaction, and that personality change can even be a better predictor of life satisfaction than many of the external variables that are normally considered in economic models of happiness.

Changes from within do matter—and these changes may indeed be undervalued in their role in determining happiness. In fact, they may even have strong economic consequences. Considering the average U.S. household income is around $88,000, a little less anxiety perhaps could be worth leaps up the economic ladder. Not only can a personality makeover affect happiness, but a change in happiness, regardless of the source, can also have a big impact on personality. It’s possible, for instance, that circumstances that consistently make a person feel negative can lead that person to be more anxious or cautious than they would be otherwise. Environments that support well-being may encourage someone to keep acting the way they do, or even to become more conscientious, agreeable, and so forth.

In another study drawing on the HILDA dataset from 2005 to 2009, the psychologist Christopher Soto investigated this possibility among a sample of 16,367 Australians, ages 15 to 93. Consistent with the other studies reviewed here, personality traits predicted subsequent changes in well-being. However, well-being also predicted subsequent changes in personality. People who began the study with high levels of extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and emotional stability showed increases in happiness, more frequent positive emotions, and less frequent negative emotions. But the reverse direction was also true: those with initially high levels of happiness tended to show growth in agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and introversion over time.

Q1MCQ

The primary purpose of the passage is to:

AShow that personality traits remain stable across time regardless of life events.

BDescribe recent evidence that personality can change and that such change affects happiness.

CDemonstrate that external socio-economic factors are more powerful than personality in determining life satisfaction.

DCriticize the self-help industry for promoting unfounded claims about personality change.

Solution Answer: B

The passage asks whether changing personality makes people happier. It then reviews the HILDA studies, which link personality change to life satisfaction in both directions. That is a description of recent evidence.

A: the passage says personality can change. C: this reverses the finding that personality may predict satisfaction better than external variables. D: the self-help industry is only the opening hook; the author never calls its claims unfounded.

Q2MCQ

According to the passage, all of the following statements about the Australian studies on personality and life satisfaction are true EXCEPT:

AThe studies found that increases in extraversion, conscientiousness, and agreeableness were associated with greater life satisfaction.

BHigher levels of neuroticism were linked to lower life satisfaction in the sample studied.

CPersonality changes were found to occur more frequently than changes in socio-economic factors such as income or marital status.

DThe findings suggested that personality changes could predict happiness more effectively than traditional economic variables.

Solution Answer: C

The second study found that personality changes occurred “as often as” socio-economic changes, not more often. So C misstates the finding.

A and B are stated in the first study’s results. D matches the claim that personality change “can even be a better predictor of life satisfaction” than external variables.

Q3MCQ

Which of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?

APeople who become more conscientious over time are likely to experience higher life satisfaction.

BChanges in personality are rare compared to changes in income or marital status.

CEconomic conditions are the primary cause of shifts in personality.

DPersonality change occurs only during adolescence and stabilizes afterwards.

Solution Answer: A

Increases in conscientiousness were “associated with increased life satisfaction”. So someone who becomes more conscientious is likely to be more satisfied.

B: personality changed “as often as” income or marital status. C: the passage never names economic conditions as the main cause of personality change. D: the studies tracked change in adults aged up to 79 and 93.

Q4MCQ

Suppose a company designs workplace programs that foster teamwork, goal-setting, and emotional resilience among employees. Based on the passage’s reasoning, which of the following outcomes is most consistent with these programs’ likely effects?

AEmployees’ personalities would remain unchanged, though their income might increase.

BPersonality changes would occur only among older employees with prior job experience.

CImprovements in morale would have no measurable connection to personality traits.

DEnhanced well-being could reinforce positive personality traits, leading to sustained happiness.

Solution Answer: D

The passage describes a two-way loop. Environments that support well-being encourage people to become more conscientious and agreeable, and those traits in turn predict greater happiness. Programs building teamwork and resilience fit this loop.

A: the passage says personality can change. B: nothing limits change to older employees. C: this contradicts the link between well-being and personality.

Q5TITA

Five jumbled-up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

There are situations in which we may not know what is happening because the outcome of the event hasn’t been determined yet.
But uncertainty can also occur when we don’t yet know what an outcome is, even though it has been determined.
One domain in which uncertainty can increase effort in this way is romantic relationships.
It’s important to recognise that not all uncertainty is the same, and how people respond to uncertainty depends in part on the type of uncertainty they experience.
Our responses to both these types of uncertainty illustrate the unexpected usefulness of experiencing uncertainty.

Solution Answer: 3

The coherent paragraph is 4 → 1 → 2 → 5:

4: Not all uncertainty is the same.
1: First type: the outcome hasn’t been determined yet.
2: “But” uncertainty “also” occurs when the outcome is determined but unknown.
5: Our responses to “both these types” show that uncertainty is useful.

Sentence 3 refers to uncertainty increasing effort “in this way”, but no sentence describes increased effort. It belongs to a different paragraph about romantic relationships.

Q6TITA

The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

As the river deposited alluvial silt, raising the level of the floodplain, and land was reclaimed from marsh, the area available for cultivation in the Nile valley and delta increased, while pastoralism declined slowly.
In addition to grain crops, fruit and vegetables were important, the latter being irrigated year-round in small plots.
Basin irrigation was achieved by simple means, and multiple cropping was not feasible until much later times, except perhaps in the lakeside area of Al-Fayyūm.
Fish was also vital to the diet.

Solution Answer: 3124

The order runs like this:

3: How farming worked: simple basin irrigation, no multiple cropping.
1: How the cultivable area grew in the Nile valley and delta.
2: “In addition to grain crops”, fruit and vegetables mattered.
4: Fish was “also” vital, closing the list of food sources.

Q7MCQ

There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.

Sentence If human language use is not affixed in some determinate, predictable fashion to stimuli, then language use is not directly caused by situations.

Paragraph Humans can produce new expressions that lack any one-to-one relationship with their environments. ___(1)___. Generally, stimuli in a human’s local environment appear to elicit utterances, but not cause them. ___(2)___. Among other things, this means that meaningful expressions can be generated about environments far-removed from the local context in which the person speaks, or even about imaginary contexts. ___(3)___. The contrast with animal communication is striking here. ___(4)___. For animals, communication is restricted to the local context of its use.

AOption 1

BOption 2

COption 3

DOption 4

Solution Answer: B (Option 2)

The paragraph first observes that stimuli “elicit utterances, but not cause them”. The missing sentence turns this into a general principle: language use is “not directly caused by situations”. “Among other things, this means…” then draws the consequence: people can speak about far-removed or imaginary contexts. So it fits at blank 2.

At blank 1, the conclusion about causation would come before the paragraph introduces stimuli at all. Blanks 3 and 4 sit in the contrast with animal communication, where a general statement about human language would break the comparison.

Q8TITA

Sentences given in the question below, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. The first and last sentences are A and F, and the four in between are labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4. Choose the most logical order of these four sentences to construct a coherent paragraph from sentences A to F.

Five major Chinook hatcheries release tens of millions of juveniles annually, but this earnest production isn’t helping wild salmon.
Wild salmon have a phenotypic plasticity that helps them adapt to habitat changes.
Hatchery fish compete with wild kin for food, mates, and nest sites, and when a hatchery spawner chooses a wild partner, their domesticated genetics get passed on.
A rich portfolio of life history options stabilizes populations by spreading environmental risk across habitats and over time.
They can colonize a new stream if one becomes blocked or delay migration if a stream gets too warm.
Maintaining this natural diversity is crucial for the long-term survival of salmon populations in the face of environmental challenges.

Solution Answer: 2143

The order runs like this:

A: Hatcheries aren’t helping wild salmon.
2: Why: hatchery fish compete with wild kin and dilute their genetics.
1: What is at risk: the wild salmon’s phenotypic plasticity.
4: “They” (wild salmon) can colonise new streams or delay migration.
3: This “rich portfolio” of options stabilises populations.
F: Maintaining “this natural diversity” is crucial.

Q9MCQ

The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

Passage Scientists from IIT-Delhi and the DRDO recently demonstrated a key advance in quantum cybersecurity that stands to revolutionise how the world will communicate in the future. The world’s secrets are currently stored and communicated via channels that are protected by difficult mathematical problems. Over the years, an increasing amount of computing power available to certain actors has forced these problems to become difficult and nigh-uncrackable. The imminence of quantum computing requires this paradigm to change because quantum computers can (at least on paper) solve problems currently out of reach of the most powerful conventional supercomputers. Quantum cybersecurity is one prong of this change, promising to protect communication channels irrespective of the computing power available to malicious actors.

AQuantum computers will make all existing cybersecurity systems obsolete, forcing governments and scientists to rebuild global communication networks.

BQuantum computing will soon replace conventional supercomputers, leading to faster communication across the world.

CIIT-Delhi and DRDO scientists have developed quantum computers that can solve all existing mathematical problems used in cybersecurity.

DQuantum cybersecurity offers a way to secure communication channels even against the immense power of quantum computers, marking a major shift in digital security.

Solution Answer: D

The passage says quantum computing threatens maths-based protection, and quantum cybersecurity promises security whatever computing power attackers have. D captures both the threat and the shift.

A overstates (“all… obsolete”, “rebuild global networks”). B is about speed and replacing supercomputers, which the passage never discusses. C is wrong: the scientists demonstrated a cybersecurity advance, not quantum computers.

Q10MCQ

There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.

Sentence They see potential far beyond China, believing that plant factories hold real promise in regions with limited arable land and challenging climates.

Paragraph ___(1)___. Closing the emissions gap would require coordinated efforts across the vast network of indoor farms, which could be a challenge. ___(2)___. But perhaps that shouldn’t overshadow the several other “multifaceted benefits” the researchers describe in their paper. ___(3)___. With the global population rounding up to 10 billion by 2050, and the climate growing less predictable all the while, the researchers seem confident that upscaling indoor farming could provide the “promising transformation” needed to meet these future challenges. ___(4)___. But clearly there’s still a long way to go to reach that reality.

AOption 1

BOption 2

COption 3

DOption 4

Solution Answer: C (Option 3)

“They” needs a plural referent: “the researchers” mentioned just before blank 3. The sentence expands on their “multifaceted benefits” (potential beyond China). It also leads into the global view in the next sentence (10 billion people, unpredictable climate).

At blank 1, “they” has no referent. At blank 2, the paragraph is still on the emissions challenge, before the turn to benefits. At blank 4, the sentence would split the researchers’ global conclusion from the closing caution.

DILR · Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning

Q11 – Q20 0/10

Set 1 · Q11 – Q14

Six badminton players, Neha, Lata, Jaya, Mamata, Kavita and Oorja participated in a tournament which was played across 5 days, and each player played exactly one match on each day. Every player played exactly one match against every other player during the course of the tournament. Each match consists of only one set. Each set has multiple games. The person who wins 11 games first with a lead of at least 2, is the winner of a particular match. If no one manages to win 11 games with a lead of 2, then the match continues till one of the players has managed such a lead. The following table gives the number of games won by each player on each of the given days.

	Mon	Tue	Wed	Thu	Fri
Jaya	13	12	11	12	4
Kavita	9	11	9	11	8
Lata	11	8	7	14	11
Mamata	11	13	11	11	11
Neha	8	11	9	7	11
Oorja	11	14	11	5	6

Q11MCQ

For how many matches can the results be uniquely determined?

AAll 15

B14

C13

D12

Solution Answer: A

Valid scores. A match ends either 11 against 9 or less, or in extra play as n against n − 2 (n ≥ 12).
Tue and Thu. On Tuesday, Jaya’s 12 can only be the loser’s score against 14, so Oorja beat Jaya 14–12. Mamata’s 13 beat an 11 (Kavita or Neha), and Lata’s 8 lost to the other 11. On Thursday, Lata beat Jaya 14–12.
Rest of Jaya’s matches. Monday: Jaya’s 13 beat an 11 (Lata, Mamata or Oorja). Lata and Oorja already play her on other days, so Jaya beat Mamata 13–11. Friday: Jaya’s 4 lost to an 11 (Lata, Mamata or Neha); only Neha is left. Wednesday: Jaya beat Kavita 11–9.
Lata’s schedule. Lata must meet Kavita, Mamata, Neha and Oorja once each on Mon, Tue, Wed and Fri. Mon and Tue give her Kavita and Neha (in some order), so Wed is Lata–Mamata and Fri is Lata–Oorja. That forces Wed Oorja–Neha and Fri Mamata–Kavita.
Mon, Tue and Thu. Oorja cannot meet Neha twice, so Mon is Lata–Neha and Oorja–Kavita. Then Tue is Lata–Kavita and Mamata–Neha. Kavita still needs Neha, so Thu is Kavita–Neha and Mamata–Oorja.

Day	Match 1	Match 2	Match 3
Mon	Jaya 13–11 Mamata	Lata 11–8 Neha	Oorja 11–9 Kavita
Tue	Oorja 14–12 Jaya	Mamata 13–11 Neha	Kavita 11–8 Lata
Wed	Jaya 11–9 Kavita	Mamata 11–7 Lata	Oorja 11–9 Neha
Thu	Lata 14–12 Jaya	Kavita 11–7 Neha	Mamata 11–5 Oorja
Fri	Neha 11–4 Jaya	Lata 11–6 Oorja	Mamata 11–8 Kavita

(Winner listed first.) Every pairing and result is forced, so all 15 matches are uniquely determined.

Q12TITA

How many games did Mamata win?

Solution Answer: 4

Detailed solution coming soon.

Q13MCQ

On which day did Lata play against Jaya?

AMonday

BTuesday

CWednesday

DThursday

Solution Answer: D

From the table in Q11, Lata’s 14 and Jaya’s 12 on Thursday can only be the same match (14–12 in extra play).

Q14MCQ

Which of the following games was played on Friday?

ALata vs Kavita

BMamata vs Oorja

CNeha vs Jaya

DLata vs Jaya

Solution Answer: C

From the table in Q11, Friday’s matches were Neha–Jaya, Lata–Oorja and Mamata–Kavita, so the answer is Neha vs Jaya.

The other pairs were played on other days: Lata–Kavita on Tuesday, Mamata–Oorja on Thursday, Lata–Jaya on Thursday.

Set 2 · Q15 – Q20

Karun, Lakshan and Manas appeared in an exam that had three sections- A, B and C. Each section has 20 questions. The marking scheme is:

Section	Marks awarded for Correct Answer	Marks deducted for Incorrect Answer
A	3	1
B	4	1
C	5	2

Each one of them attempted all the questions in the paper. The bar graph gives the marks obtained in a section as a percentage of the total marks obtained for each of the students.

Stacked bar graph titled Distribution of Scores. Karun: Section A 26.67%, Section B 33.33%, Section C 40%. Lakshan: A 30%, B 25%, C 45%. Manas: A 16%, B 32%, C 52%

Q15MCQ

What is the minimum possible score of Karun?

A-30

B-45

C-60

D-80

Solution Answer: A

Possible section scores (c = number correct out of 20):
- Section A: 3c − (20 − c) = 4c − 20, a multiple of 4 from −20 to 60.
- Section B: 5c − 20, a multiple of 5 from −20 to 80.
- Section C: 7c − 40, which leaves remainder 2 when divided by 7, from −40 to 100.
Karun (26.67% : 33.33% : 40% = 4 : 5 : 6). A = 4k, B = 5k and C = 6k. C must leave remainder 2 on division by 7, which needs k = 7m + 5. With the ranges, k = −2, 5 or 12, giving totals −30, 75 or 180.
Lakshan (30% : 25% : 45%). A = 12j, B = 10j and C = 18j (the A multiple-of-4 rule forces this form). C’s remainder rule needs j = 7m + 4. Only j = 4 fits the ranges, so the total is 160.
Manas (16% : 32% : 52%). A = 20p, B = 40p and C = 65p (the B multiple-of-5 rule forces this form). C’s remainder rule needs p = 7m + 1. Only p = 1 fits, so the total is 125.

Student	A	B	C	Total
Karun (k = −2)	−8	−10	−12	−30
Karun (k = 5)	20	25	30	75
Karun (k = 12)	48	60	72	180
Lakshan	48	40	72	160
Manas	20	40	65	125

Karun’s minimum possible score is −30 (3, 2 and 4 correct in A, B and C).

Q16TITA

How much did Lakshan score on the test?

Solution Answer: 160

From the table in Q15, Lakshan scored 48 + 40 + 72 = 160. Check: 48 is 30%, 40 is 25% and 72 is 45% of 160.

Q17MCQ

How many questions did Manas attempt correctly in the test?

A35

B37

C40

DCannot be determined

Solution Answer: B

From the table in Q15, Manas scored A = 20, B = 40 and C = 65.

Correct answers: A: 4c − 20 = 20, so c = 10. B: 5c − 20 = 40, so c = 12. C: 7c − 40 = 65, so c = 15.

Total = 10 + 12 + 15 = 37.

Q18MCQ

Which of the following cannot be the total marks obtained by the three students?

A465

B360

C325

D255

Solution Answer: C

Lakshan + Manas = 160 + 125 = 285. Karun is −30, 75 or 180, so the total is 255, 360 or 465.

The only option that cannot occur is 325.

Q19MCQ

Which of the following statements is definitely true?

AManas scored the least marks in section C

BNo one scored more than 50 marks in section B

CExactly two of the students scored equal marks in section A

DExactly two of the students scored equal marks in section B

Solution Answer: D

From the table in Q15:

D: Lakshan and Manas both scored 40 in B, and Karun’s B (−10, 25 or 60) is never 40. So exactly two are always equal ✓.
A: Karun’s C could be −12 or 30, which is below Manas’s 65 ✗.
B: Karun’s B could be 60 ✗.
C: if Karun’s A is −8, no two A scores (−8, 48, 20) are equal ✗.

Q20TITA

If Karun and Lakshan had equal marks in section C, what is the difference between their total marks?

Solution Answer: 20

Lakshan’s C = 72, so Karun’s C = 6k = 72 and k = 12. Karun’s total is then 180.

Difference = 180 − 160 = 20.

QA · Quantitative Ability

Q21 – Q30 0/10

Q21MCQ

A certain sum amounts to ₹81,840 in 3 years and ₹92,400 in 5 years at a fixed rate of simple interest. Had the sum been lent at compound interest at the same rate, in how many years would it double itself?

C10

D12

Solution Answer: B

Interest for 2 years = 92,400 − 81,840 = 10,560, so ₹5,280 per year.

Principal = 81,840 − 3 × 5,280 = 66,000. Rate = 5,280/66,000 = 8%.

At 8% compound interest, (1.08)⁹ ≈ 1.999 ≈ 2. This is also the rule of 72: 72/8 = 9. The sum doubles in about 9 years.

Q22TITA

If the sum of three integers is 10, then the sum of the fourth powers of the integers cannot be less than

Solution Answer: 418

The sum of fourth powers is smallest when the integers are as close to each other as possible: 10/3 ≈ 3.33, so take 3, 3, 4.

3⁴ + 3⁴ + 4⁴ = 81 + 81 + 256 = 418.

Q23MCQ

Find the number of distinct factors of (570570)².

A2187

B2304

C1872

D2025

Solution Answer: A

570570 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 11 × 13 × 19 (seven distinct primes).

Squaring gives each prime the power 2, so the number of factors = 3⁷ = 2187.

Q24TITA

The work done by 4 men in 12 days is equal to the work done by 6 women in 10 days and is also equal to the work done by 8 children in 9 days. A man, a woman and a child working together take 10 days to complete a particular job. In how many days will the same job be completed by 2 women and 5 children working together?

Solution Answer: 5

48 man-days = 60 woman-days = 72 child-days. Take the work as 720 units: a man does 15, a woman 12 and a child 10 units per day.

The job = (15 + 12 + 10) × 10 = 370 units. 2 women + 5 children do 24 + 50 = 74 units per day.

Time = 370/74 = 5 days.

Q25MCQ

A rectangular field is 156 m long and 81 m broad. A well with a length of 13 m and a breadth of 12 m is dug inside the field, and the mud dug out is spread uniformly over the rest of the field to a thickness of 25 cm. What will be the depth of the well?

A15 m

B16 m

C18 m

D20 m

Solution Answer: D

Field area = 156 × 81 = 12,636 m². Well area = 13 × 12 = 156 m², so the remaining area = 12,480 m².

Mud spread = 12,480 × 0.25 = 3,120 m³ = 156 × depth.

Depth = 3,120/156 = 20 m.

Q26MCQ

Amol and Bishnu start running simultaneously from diametrically opposite ends of a circular track, heading towards each other at speeds of 12 km/h and 24 km/h, respectively. Every 8 minutes, each of them reduces their speed to half of what it was at the start of that interval. If the length of the circular track is 1500 meters, how many times will they meet? Assume they continue running along the circular path without changing direction.

DInfinite

Solution Answer: B

Combined (relative) speed = 36 km/h = 600 m/min. In the first 8 minutes they close 4,800 m together. That halves in every interval: 2,400, 1,200, … The total combined distance can never exceed 4,800 × 2 = 9,600 m.

They meet when the combined distance reaches 750 m and then every 1,500 m after that: 750, 2,250, 3,750, 5,250, 6,750, 8,250. The next meeting would need 9,750 m, which is more than 9,600 m.

So they meet 6 times.

Q27MCQ

log_a N = p₁ + q₁, log_b N = p₂ + q₂, log_c N = p₃ + q₃, where p₁, p₂, p₃ are integers and q₁, q₂, q₃ ∈ [0, 1). For a = 3, c = 7, p₁ = 5, p₂ = 3, p₃ = 2, and b is such that the largest integral value of N is 342, find the number of integral values b can assume.

Solution Answer: A

Detailed solution coming soon.

Q28MCQ

A square with side length x is inscribed in a right triangle with sides 3, 4, and 5 such that one vertex of the square coincides with the right-angle vertex of the triangle. Another square with side length y is inscribed in the same triangle such that one side of the square lies along the hypotenuse of the triangle. What is the value of x/y?

A1312

B1213

C3735

D3537

Solution Answer: C

Square at the right angle: x = (3 × 4)/(3 + 4) = 12/7.

Square on the hypotenuse: the height to the hypotenuse is h = 12/5. So y = (5 × h)/(5 + h) = 12 ÷ (37/5) = 60/37.

x/y = (12/7) × (37/60) = 37/35.

Q29MCQ

A wheel with three numbers on it, zero, one, and two, is spun so that there is a 40% chance that the wheel lands on zero, a 50% chance the wheel lands on one, and a 10% chance the wheel lands on two. You receive back the amount corresponding to the number that the wheel lands on. What is the expected amount of money that you will get back from the game if you put Rs. 100?

A50

B60

C70

D75

Solution Answer: C

Expected multiplier = 0 × 0.4 + 1 × 0.5 + 2 × 0.1 = 0.7.

On Rs. 100, the expected return = Rs. 70.

Q30MCQ

A 1-litre water-alcohol mixture M1 contains 40% water while another 1-litre water-alcohol mixture M2 contains 70% water. x ml is taken out from each of the two mixtures and put in two separate containers. The quantity taken out from M1 is mixed into the remaining part of M2, and the quantity taken out from M2 is mixed into the remaining part of M1. If the two mixtures contain equal quantities of water after the operation, what is the value of x?

A200

B300

C400

D500

Solution Answer: D

Water in new M1 = 0.4(1000 − x) + 0.7x = 400 + 0.3x.

Water in new M2 = 0.7(1000 − x) + 0.4x = 700 − 0.3x.

Setting them equal: 0.6x = 300, so x = 500 ml.

Day 27 complete! 🔥

0 / 90

Correct 0 · Wrong 0 · Accuracy 0%

Keep the streak alive. See you tomorrow for Day 28.