The SNAP 2026 Official Mock Test 2 was conducted on October 23, 2026. The mock test included questions from General English, Analytical and Logical Reasoning, Quantitative, Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency, and Ethics, Morality and Values.
Each question carried one mark, with a deduction of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
Practising the questions with solutions can help candidates understand the reasoning behind each answer, review important concepts and identify calculation errors before the SNAP 2026 exam.
This article covers the questions provided from Official Mock 2, along with answer explanations for each question.
SNAP 2026 Official Mock 2: Exam Pattern
The official mock followed a 60-minute format with 60 multiple-choice questions distributed across four sections. Candidates had to select one correct response from four options for each question.
- Mock test date: October 23, 2026
- Total questions: 60
- Test duration: 60 minutes
- Total marks: 60
- Correct answer: +1 mark
- Incorrect answer: -0.25 marks
- Question format: Multiple-choice questions (MCQs)
The four sections were General English with 10 questions, Analytical and Logical Reasoning with 20 questions, Quantitative, Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency with 20 questions, and Ethics, Morality and Values with 10 questions.
The mock test score is intended for practice and self-assessment. It does not affect a candidate’s SNAP 2026 score or subsequent selection process.
Watch SNAP 2026 Official Mock 2 Questions and Solutions
Follow the explanations while reviewing your answers to understand the logic behind each response and revisit the calculations or concepts that need more practice.
SNAP 2026 Official Mock 2 Questions with Solutions
Some of the questions asked in the SNAP Official Mock 2 test are shared below:
General English Questions and Answers
Question 1. Vocabulary
Choose the word that most appropriately replaces the highlighted word in the sentence. “Although the committee publicly endorsed the proposal, its subsequent actions suggested that its support was merely perfunctory, rather than the result of genuine conviction.”
A. Impartial
B. Superficial
C. Unanimous
D. Deliberate
Correct answer: B. Superficial
Question 2. Spot the grammatical error
Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error.
“Neither the repeated assurances of the management (A) / nor the evidence presented by the auditors (B) / were sufficient to convince the shareholders that the financial irregularities had been resolved (C) / No error (D).”
A. Part A
B. Part B
C. Part C
D. Part D
Correct answer: C. Part C
Question 3. Grammar
Select the grammatically correct sentence in formal English.
A. The panel demanded that the disputed evidence was independently reassessed before any decision could be taken.
B. The panel demanded that the disputed evidence is independently reassessed before any decision could be taken.
C. The panel demanded that the disputed evidence be independently reassessed before any decision could be taken.
D. The panel demanded that the disputed evidence has independently reassessed before any decision could be taken.
Correct answer: C.
Question 4. Vocabulary
Choose the word that most precisely completes the sentence.
“The spokesperson’s reply was deliberately ______: it neither confirmed nor denied the proposed merger and could reasonably be interpreted in either direction.”
A. Unequivocal
B. Disinterested
C. Meticulous
D. Equivocal
Correct answer: D. Equivocal
Question 5. Vocabulary and contextual usage
Choose the pair that most appropriately completes the sentence.
“The independent audit found no reliable evidence supporting the allegations and identified inconsistencies in the accusers’ accounts. It did not merely fail to ____ the allegations; its findings actively ____ the credibility of the accusers.”
A. Substantiate; undermined
B. Repudiate; reinforced
C. Conceal; vindicated
D. Qualify; established
Correct answer: A. Substantiate; undermined
Question 6. Vocabulary
Choose the word that most appropriately completes the sentence.
“Despite the speaker’s seemingly persuasive arguments, his conclusion was ultimately ______, as it relied on selective evidence and conveniently ignored facts that contradicted his central claim.”
A. Unequivocal
B. Specious
C. Pragmatic
D. Cogent
Correct answer: B. Specious
Analytical and Logical Reasoning Questions with Solutions
Question 7. Circular seating arrangement
Eight people — A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H — are seated around a circular table, all facing the centre.
The following information is known:
A sits opposite E.
B sits immediately to the left of A.
C sits second to the right of E.
D sits immediately to the left of C.
F sits opposite B.
G sits immediately to the left of F.
Who sits immediately to the right of D?
A. B
B. E
C. C
D. H
Correct answer: C. C
Question 8. Linear seating arrangement
Eight employees — P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W — sit in a row facing north.
R occupies the third position from the left.
T sits immediately to the right of R.
V sits second to the right of T.
S occupies one of the two extreme positions.
Q sits immediately to the left of W.
Who sits second to the left of V?
A. R
B. T
C. U
D. W
Correct answer: B. T
Question 9. Team selection
A team of four members must be selected from A, B, C, D, E, F and G, subject to the following conditions:
If A is selected, B must also be selected.
C and D cannot be selected together.
If E is selected, F must also be selected.
G cannot be selected if B is selected.
Exactly four members must be selected.
Which of the following teams can be formed?
A. A, C, E, G
B. B, C, F, G
C. A, B, D, F
D. B, C, D, E
Correct answer: C. A, B, D, F
Question 10. Ranking
Five candidates — K, L, M, N and P — receive different scores in an assessment.
M scores higher than both K and P.
K scores higher than L.
P scores higher than K.
L scores higher than N.
Who ranks third from the top?
A. K
B. L
C. P
D. M
Correct answer: A. K
Question 15. Assumption
Statement: A public library extends its weekday operating hours because a significant proportion of working students report that they cannot access its resources during regular daytime hours.
Which assumption is necessary for the decision to achieve its intended purpose?
A. All working students prefer studying in libraries rather than at home.
B. At least some of the affected students will be able to use the library during the extended hours.
C. Extending operating hours will eliminate every difficulty students face while studying.
D. Students who do not work are unlikely to use the library in the evening.
Correct answer: B.
Question 16. Strength of arguments
Statement: Should organisations be required to notify affected customers promptly after confirming a significant data breach involving their personal information?
Argument I: Yes, because timely notification allows affected customers to take protective measures, such as changing compromised passwords or monitoring suspicious transactions.
Argument II: No, because disclosing a data breach always destroys customer trust, regardless of how the organisation handles the incident.
A. Only Argument I is strong.
B. Only Argument II is strong.
C. Both Arguments I and II are strong.
D. Neither Argument I nor Argument II is strong.
Correct answer: A. Only Argument I is strong.
Quantitative, Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency Questions
Question 17. Profit and loss
A retailer buys 200 articles at ₹500 each and marks each article 50% above cost. All articles are initially sold at a 20% discount. Customers return 10% of the articles and receive full refunds. The returned articles have no resale value.
The retailer pays a commission of 5% only on the sales revenue retained after refunds. What is the net profit percentage on the total purchase cost?
A. 2.6%
B. 8%
C. 14%
D. 20%
Correct answer: A. 2.6%
Question 18. Mixtures and alligation
A vessel contains 60 litres of milk and water in the ratio 2:1. A quantity of the mixture is removed and replaced with the same quantity of water. Subsequently, 12 litres of the resulting mixture are removed and replaced with 12 litres of pure milk.
The final milk-to-water ratio is 3:2. How many litres were removed in the first operation?
A. 12 litres
B. 15 litres
C. 18 litres
D. 20 litres
Correct answer: B. 15 litres
Question 19. Time and work
A and B together complete a job in 12 days; B and C together in 15 days; and C and A together in 20 days. All three work together for 4 days. A then leaves, and B and C work for another 3 days. C completes the remaining work alone.
How many days does the entire job take?
A. 27 days
B. 29 days
C. 31 days
D. 35 days
Correct answer: C. 31 days
Question 20. Speed, distance and time
Two trains, 180 m and 220 m long, completely cross each other in 20 seconds when travelling in opposite directions. Travelling in the same direction, the faster train completely overtakes the slower in 100 seconds.
How long does the faster train, which is 180 m long, take to cross a 300 m bridge?
A. 36 seconds
B. 40 seconds
C. 48 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Correct answer: B. 40 seconds
Question 21. Probability
A box contains 5 red, 4 blue and 3 green balls. Three balls are drawn simultaneously without replacement.
Given that the three balls are not all of the same colour, what is the probability that exactly two are red?
A. 7/22
B. 14/41
C. 7/20
D. 10/41
Correct answer: B. 14/41
Question 22. Permutations and divisibility
How many four-digit numbers can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition, if the number must be divisible by 4?
A. 64
B. 68
C. 72
D. 80
Correct answer: C. 72
Question 23. Circular permutations
Eight distinct people sit around a circular table. Rotations count as the same arrangement, but reflections count as different.
P and Q must sit together, while R and S must not sit together. How many arrangements are possible?
A. 720
B. 840
C. 960
D. 1440
Correct answer: C. 960
Ethics, Morality and Values Questions with Solutions
Question 24. Consumer safety and professional responsibility
A senior employee discovers that a product approved for release has a defect that could endanger consumers. The product has passed all mandatory regulatory checks, and raising the concern would delay its launch, potentially jeopardising the employee’s promotion. The employee’s immediate supervisor advises against further investigation, arguing that the probability of harm is low.
What is the most ethically appropriate course of action?
A. Proceed with the launch because regulatory compliance establishes that the organisation has fulfilled its responsibility.
B. Document the concern and pursue an appropriate independent safety review before the product is released.
C. Wait until an actual incident occurs before raising the concern, since the potential harm remains uncertain.
D. Inform colleagues informally and allow them to decide collectively whether the concern warrants escalation.
Correct answer: B.
Question 25. Conflict of interest
A university appoints an external expert to evaluate applications for a prestigious research grant. One applicant is a former research partner of the expert. They have not collaborated for four years, have no current financial relationship, and have submitted competing research proposals. The expert believes they can evaluate the application objectively.
What is the most ethically defensible action?
A. Evaluate the application independently because the absence of a current financial relationship eliminates the conflict.
B. Exclude the application from consideration because any previous professional association permanently compromises impartiality.
C. Disclose the previous association to the appointing authority and follow its decision on whether recusal or another safeguard is necessary.
D. Continue evaluating the application but give it a lower weight in the final assessment to compensate for possible bias.
Correct answer: C.
Question 26. Substantive fairness
A scholarship committee evaluates applicants using a standardised examination. Two applicants receive identical scores. One applicant had access to private coaching and extensive preparation resources, while the other prepared independently because of limited access to such resources. The scholarship rules permit consideration of documented educational disadvantage, but they do not require it.
Which approach best reflects substantive fairness?
A. Award the scholarship to the applicant with greater preparation resources because identical scores demonstrate equal performance under the same examination.
B. Award the scholarship to the disadvantaged applicant automatically because social disadvantage must always outweigh academic performance.
C. Apply the same score-based rule without considering disadvantage because introducing contextual factors necessarily undermines merit.
D. Assess the documented disadvantage using consistent, relevant criteria alongside academic performance before making the decision.
Correct answer: D.
Question 27. Ethical leadership and accountability
A department head discovers that a major project failed partly because of a decision the head personally approved. During a review meeting, the head is asked to explain the failure. The team had also made implementation errors, but those errors occurred within the limits of the instructions provided.
Which response best demonstrates ethical leadership?
A. Accept responsibility for the decision, explain the contributing factors accurately, and establish corrective measures without unfairly shifting blame to the team.
B. Emphasise the team’s implementation errors because the department head’s role was primarily to approve the overall strategy.
C. Accept full responsibility for every operational error, even where the evidence establishes that particular individuals acted independently and contrary to instructions.
D. Avoid discussing individual responsibility and focus exclusively on future targets to prevent the review from becoming counterproductive.
Correct answer: A.
Conclusion
SNAP preparation requires regular practice across all four sections, along with careful time management and accuracy. Reviewing Official Mock 2 can help you identify mistakes in vocabulary, grammar, reasoning, quantitative aptitude and ethical decision-making.
To prepare with structured practice and improve your approach to different question types, consider the MBA Karo SNAP Online Course. It can be part of your preparation plan alongside timed mock tests, question analysis and regular revision of weak areas.
