CAT 2026 will be held on November 29 in three sessions, with 68 questions to be attempted in 120 minutes.
VARC will have 24 questions, while DILR and QA will have 22 questions each, with 40 minutes fixed for every section. IIM Indore is conducting CAT 2026, making its CAT 2020 papers across three slots relevant for structured practice.
The CAT 2020 papers differed in difficulty across slots. Slot 1 was comparatively easier, Slot 2 was moderate, while Slot 3 was the toughest, with DILR and VARC requiring more time and careful question selection.
Analysing these papers can help CAT 2026 aspirants assess accuracy, identify time-consuming areas and refine their attempt strategy.
Overview of CAT 2026 Exam
CAT 2026 will be conducted in three sessions on November 29. The exam will run for 120 minutes, with candidates getting 40 minutes for each section. Section switching will not be permitted during the test.
| CAT 2026 Section | Questions | Time |
| VARC | 24 | 40 minutes |
| DILR | 22 | 40 minutes |
| QA | 22 | 40 minutes |
| Total | 68 | 120 minutes |
The three sections are Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC), Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR), and Quantitative Ability (QA).
Since each section has a fixed 40-minute window, preparation should focus not only on solving questions but also on making decisions quickly within the allotted time.
For CAT 2026, the 68-question structure means that candidates need to balance accuracy with question selection. The CAT 2020 papers can help aspirants practise this approach under timed conditions.
CAT 2020 Question Paper: Download Slot 1, Slot 2 and Slot 3 PDFs with Solutions
The CAT 2020 question paper was conducted across three slots.
Since the available papers cover all three sessions, candidates preparing for CAT 2026 can use them as separate full-length practice sets.
| CAT 2020 Slot | Overall Difficulty | What the Paper Indicates | Download Link |
| Slot 1 | Easy | A comparatively manageable paper, but still required careful selection | Download Here |
| Slot 2 | Moderate | Greater difficulty than Slot 1, particularly in terms of time management | Download Here |
| Slot 3 | Difficult | DILR and VARC demanded stronger selection and time control | Download Here |
CAT 2020 Slot 1 Question Paper: Questions Asked
Check the CAT 2020 Slot 1 Question Paper with solutions for VARC, DILR, and QA shared below:
VARC
1. The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
The word ‘anarchy’ comes from the Greek anarkhia, meaning contrary to authority or without a ruler, and was used in a derogatory sense until 1840, when it was adopted by Pierre-Joseph Proudhon to describe his political and social ideology. Proudhon argued that organization without government was both possible and desirable. In the evolution of political ideas, anarchism can be seen as an ultimate projection of both liberalism and socialism, and the differing strands of anarchist thought can be related to their emphasis on one or the other of these.
Historically, anarchism arose not only as an explanation of the gulf between the rich and the poor in any community, and of the reason why the poor have been obliged to fight for their share of a common inheritance, but as a radical answer to the question ‘What went wrong?’ that followed the ultimate outcome of the French Revolution. It had ended not only with a reign of terror and the emergence of a newly rich ruling caste, but with a new adored emperor, Napoleon Bonaparte, strutting through his conquered territories.
The anarchists and their precursors were unique on the political Left in affirming that workers and peasants, grasping the chance that arose to bring an end to centuries of exploitation and tyranny, were inevitably betrayed by the new class of politicians, whose first priority was to re establish a centralized state power. After every revolutionary uprising, usually won at a heavy cost for ordinary populations, the new rulers had no hesitation in applying violence and terror, a
secret police, and a professional army to maintain their control.
For anarchists the state itself is the enemy, and they have applied the same interpretation to the outcome of every revolution of the 19th and 20th centuries. This is not merely because every state keeps a watchful and sometimes punitive eye on its dissidents, but because every state protects the privileges of the powerful.
The mainstream of anarchist propaganda for more than a century has been anarchist communism, which argues that property in land, natural resources, and the means of production should be held in mutual control by local communities, federating for innumerable joint purposes with other communes. It differs from state socialism in opposing the concept of any central authority. Some anarchists prefer to distinguish between anarchist-communism and collectivist anarchism in order to stress the obviously desirable freedom of an individual or family to possess the resources needed for living, while not implying the right to own the resources needed by others.
There are, unsurprisingly, several traditions of individualist anarchism, one of them deriving from the ‘conscious egoism’ of the German writer Max Stirner (1806–56), and another from a remarkable series of 19th-century American figures who argued that in protecting our own autonomy and associating with others for common advantages, we are promoting the good of all. These thinkers differed from free-market liberals in their absolute mistrust of American capitalism, and in their emphasis on mutualism.
Question 1 : Which one of the following best expresses the similarity between American individualist anarchists and free-market liberals as well as the difference between the former and the latter?
A. Both reject the regulatory power of the state; but the former favour a people’s state, while the latter favour state intervention in markets.
B. Both prioritise individual autonomy; but the former also emphasise mutual dependence, while the latter do not do so.
C. Both are sophisticated arguments for capitalism; but the former argue for a morally upright capitalism, while the latter argue that the market is the only morality.
D. Both are founded on the moral principles of altruism; but the latter conceive of the market as a force too mystical for the former to comprehend.
Correct answer – B
Explanation – Individualist anarchism, according to the last paragraph, involves “protecting our own
autonomy and associating with others for common advantages”. The last line of the passage states that these thinkers “differed from free-market liberals in their absolute mistrust of American
capitalism, and in their emphasis on mutualism.”In other words, while both individualist anarchists and free-market thinkers agreed on the importance of individual autonomy, individualist anarchists distrusted capitalism and put emphasis on mutualism while free market thinkers did not.
All other options mention ideas like state intervention in markets, morally upright capitalism and altruism which are not discussed in the passage.
Question 2 : The author makes all of the following arguments in the passage, EXCEPT:
A. Individualist anarchism is actually constituted of many streams, all of which focus on the autonomy of the individual.
B. The popular perception of anarchism as espousing lawlessness and violence comes from a mainstream mistrust of collectivism.
C. For anarchists, the state is the enemy because all states apply violence and terror to maintain their control.
D. The failure of the French Revolution was because of its betrayal by the new class of politicians who emerged from it.
Correct answer – B
Explanation – The passage makes no mention of the mainstream mistrust of collectivism.
In the last paragraph, the passage states that “there are, unsurprisingly, several traditions of individualist anarchism..”. So, option A is true.
Option C is true, based on paragraphs 3 and 4: “For anarchists the state itself is the enemy….because
every state keeps a watchful and sometimes punitive eye on its dissidents..”. Paragraph 3 talks about the “violence and terror” applied by centralised state power.
Option D is also true, based on paragraphs 2 and 3: French Revolution “had ended not only with a
reign of terror and the emergence of a newly rich ruling caste” and “workers and peasants, grasping the chance that arose to bring an end to centuries of exploitation and tyranny, were inevitably betrayed by the new class of politicians…”.
Question 3 : According to the passage, what is the one idea that is common to all forms of anarchism?
A. There is no idea common to all forms of anarchism; that is why it is anarchic. B. They all focus on the primacy of the power of the individual.
C. They all derive from the work of Pierre-Joseph Proudhon.
D. They are all opposed to the centralisation of power in the state.
Correct answer – D
Explanation – The passage clearly states that “for anarchists the state itself is the enemy and they have applied the same interpretation to the outcome of every revolution of the 19th and 20th centuries.”.
Note that option B is incorrect because it talks of the ‘primacy’ of the individual while anarchism puts emphasis on mutualism.
Question 4 : The author believes that the new ruling class of politicians betrayed the principles of the French Revolution, but does not specify in what way. In the context of the passage, which statement below is the likeliest explanation of that betrayal?
A. The new ruling class rode to power on the strength of the workers’ revolutionary anger, but then turned to oppress that very class.
B. The anarchists did not want a new ruling class, but were not politically strong enough to stop them.
C. The new ruling class was constituted mainly of anarchists who were against the destructive impact of the Revolution on the market.
D. The new ruling class struck a deal with the old ruling class to share power between them.
Correct answer – A
Explanation – The passage discusses the French Revolution and goes on to state in paragraph 3 that “after every revolutionary uprising, usually won at a heavy cost for ordinary populations, the new rulers had no hesitation in applying violence and terror, a secret police, and a professional army to maintain their control.”So, option A is the correct choice.
QA
Question 1: How many 3-digit numbers are there, for which the product of their digits is more than 2 but less than 7?
Correct Answer: 21
Solution:
Let the digits of the 3-digit number be p, q, and r.
Given:
2 < p × q × r < 7
Therefore, the product can only be:
3, 4, 5, or 6
Case 1: Product = 3
Possible digits:
1, 1, 3
Number of arrangements:
3!/2! = 3
Case 2: Product = 4
Possible digit sets:
1, 1, 4 → 3 arrangements
1, 2, 2 → 3 arrangements
Total = 6
Case 3: Product = 5
Possible digits:
1, 1, 5
Arrangements:
3!/2! = 3
Case 4: Product = 6
Possible digit sets:
1, 1, 6 → 3 arrangements
1, 2, 3 → 3! = 6 arrangements
Total = 9
Hence total numbers:
= 3 + 6 + 3 + 9
= 21
Answer: 21
Question 2: If f(5 + x) = f(5 − x) for every real x and f(x) = 0 has four distinct real roots, then the sum of the roots is
A. 0
B. 40
C. 10
D. 20
Correct Answer: D. 20
Solution:
Given:
f(5 + x) = f(5 − x)
This means the function is symmetric about x = 5.
Hence, if (5 + k) is a root, then (5 − k) is also a root.
So roots occur in symmetric pairs:
(5 + k), (5 − k)
Sum of one pair:
(5 + k) + (5 − k) = 10
Since there are four distinct real roots, there are two such pairs.
Therefore, total sum of roots:
= 10 + 10
= 20
Answer: 20
Question 3: Veeru invested Rs 10000 at 5% simple annual interest, and exactly after two years, Joy invested Rs 8000 at 10% simple annual interest. How many years after Veeru’s investment, will their balances, i.e., principal plus accumulated interest, be equal?
Correct Answer: 12 years
Solution:
Let the balances become equal after N years from Veeru’s investment.
Veeru’s balance after N years:
= 10000 + 10000 × (5/100) × N
= 10000 + 500N
Joy invests after 2 years, so his money earns interest for (N − 2) years.
Joy’s balance after N years:
= 8000 + 8000 × (10/100) × (N − 2)
= 8000 + 800(N − 2)
Equating balances:
10000 + 500N = 8000 + 800(N − 2)
10000 + 500N = 8000 + 800N − 1600
10000 + 500N = 6400 + 800N
3600 = 300N
N = 12
Answer: 12 years
Question 4: A train travelled at one-third of its usual speed, and hence reached the destination 30 minutes after the scheduled time. On its return journey, the train initially travelled at its usual speed for 5 minutes but then stopped for 4 minutes for an emergency. The percentage by which the train must now increase its usual speed so as to reach the destination at the scheduled time, is nearest to
A. 58
B. 67
C. 50
D. 61
Correct Answer: B. 67
Solution:
Let the usual time taken by the train be t minutes.
When the speed becomes one-third of the usual speed, the time becomes three times. So,
New time = 3t
Delay caused:
3t − t = 30
2t = 30
t = 15 minutes
Therefore, the train usually completes the journey in 15 minutes. On the return journey:
• The train travels at usual speed for 5 minutes. • Hence it covers 5/15 = 1/3 of the journey.
Remaining journey:
= 2/3 of the distance
Remaining scheduled time:
= 15 − 5 = 10 minutes
But the train stops for 4 minutes.
So actual time left to cover the remaining 2/3 distance: = 10 − 4
= 6 minutes
Normally, the train covers 2/3 of the distance in 10 minutes. Now it must cover the same distance in 6 minutes. Required speed increase factor:
= 10/6
= 5/3
Increase over usual speed:
= (5/3 − 1)
= 2/3
Percentage increase:
= (2/3) × 100
= 66.67%
Nearest value = 67%
Answer: 67
DILR
1. Ten musicians (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J) are experts in at least one of the following three percussion instruments: tabla, mridangam, and ghatam. Among them, three are experts in tabla but not in mridangam or ghatam, another three are experts in mridangam but not in tabla or ghatam, and one is an expert in ghatam but not in tabla or mridangam. Further, two are experts in tabla and mridangam but not in ghatam, and one is an expert in tabla and ghatam but not in mridangam.
The following facts are known about these ten musicians.
1. Both A and B are experts in mridangam, but only one of them is also an expert in tabla. 2. D is an expert in both tabla and ghatam.
3. Both F and G are experts in tabla, but only one of them is also an expert in mridangam. 4. Neither I nor J is an expert in tabla.
5. Neither H nor I is an expert in mridangam, but only one of them is an expert in ghatam.
Question 1: Who among the following is DEFINITELY an expert in tabla but not in either mridangam or ghatam?
A. A
B. F
C. H
D. C
Correct answer – C
Question 2: Who among the following is DEFINITELY an expert in mridangam but not in either tabla or ghatam?
A. B
B. J
C. G
D. E
Correct answer – B
Question 3: Which of the following pairs CANNOT have any musician who is an expert in both tabla and mridangam but not in ghatam?
A. A and B
B. F and G
C. C and E
D. C and F
Correct answer – C
Question 4: If C is an expert in mridangam and F is not, then which are the three musicians who are experts in tabla but not in either mridangam or ghatam?
A. E, F and H
B. C, G and H
C. E, G and H
D. C, E and G
Correct answer – A
2. 1000 patients currently suffering from a disease were selected to study the effectiveness of treatment of four types of medicines — A, B, C and D. These patients were first randomly assigned into two groups of equal size, called treatment group and control group. The patients in the control group were not treated with any of these medicines; instead they were given a dummy medicine, called placebo, containing only sugar and starch. The following information is known about the patients in the treatment group.
a. A total of 250 patients were treated with type A medicine and a total of 210 patients were treated with type C medicine.
b. 25 patients were treated with type A medicine only. 20 patients were treated with type C medicine only. 10 patients were treated with type D medicine only.
c. 35 patients were treated with type A and type D medicines only. 20 patients were treated with type A and type B medicines only. 30 patients were treated with type A and type C medicines only. 20 patients were treated with type C and type D medicines only.
d. 100 patients were treated with exactly three types of medicines.
e. 40 patients were treated with medicines of types A, B and C, but not with medicines of type D. 20 patients were treated with medicines of types A, C and D, but not with medicines of type B.
f. 50 patients were given all the four types of medicines. 75 patients were treated with exactly one type of medicine.
Question 1: How many patients were treated with medicine type B?
Correct answer – 340
Question 2: The number of patients who were treated with medicine types B, C and D, but not type A was:
Correct answer – 10
Question 3: How many patients were treated with medicine types B and D only?
Correct answer – 150
Question 4 : The number of patients who were treated with medicine type D was.
Correct answer – 325
CAT 2020 Slot 2 Question Paper: Questions Asked
Check the CAT 2020 Slot 2 Question Paper with solutions for VARC, DILR, and QA shared below:
VARC
The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
The claims advanced here may be condensed into two assertions: [first, that visual] culture is what images, acts of seeing, and attendant intellectual, emotional, and perceptual sensibilities do to build, maintain, or transform the worlds in which people live. [And second, that the] study of visual culture is the analysis and interpretation of images and the ways of seeing (or gazes) that configure the agents, practices, conceptualities, and institutions that put images to work. . . .
Accordingly, the study of visual culture should be characterized by several concerns. First, scholars of visual culture need to examine any and all imagery – high and low, art and nonart. . . . They must not restrict themselves to objects of a particular beauty or aesthetic value. Indeed, any kind of imagery may be found to offer up evidence of the visual construction of reality. . . .
Second, the study of visual culture must scrutinize visual practice as much as images themselves, asking what images do when they are put to use. If scholars engaged in this enterprise inquire what makes an image beautiful or why this image or that constitutes a masterpiece or a work of genius, they should do so with the purpose of investigating an artist’s or a work’s contribution to the experience of beauty, taste, value, or genius. No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo. They were unique creators of images that changed the way their contemporaries thought and felt and have continued to shape the history of art, artists, museums, feeling, and aesthetic value. But study of the critical, artistic, and popular reception of works by such artists as Michelangelo and Leonardo can shed important light on the meaning of these artists and their works for many different people. And the history of meaning-making has a great deal to do with how scholars as well as lay audiences today understand these artists and their achievements.
Third, scholars studying visual culture might properly focus their interpretative work on lifeworlds by examining images, practices, visual technologies, taste, and artistic style as constitutive of social relations. The task is to understand how artifacts contribute to the construction of a world. . . . Important methodological implications follow: ethnography and reception studies become productive forms of gathering information, since these move beyond the image as a closed and fixed meaning-event. . . .
Fourth, scholars may learn a great deal when they scrutinize the constituents of vision, that is, the structures of perception as a physiological process as well as the epistemological frameworks informing a system of visual representation. Vision is a socially and a biologically constructed operation, depending on the design of the human body and how it engages the interpretive devices developed by a culture in order to see intelligibly. . . . Seeing . . . operates on the foundation of covenants with images that establish the conditions for meaningful visual experience.
Finally, the scholar of visual culture seeks to regard images as evidence for explanation, not as epiphenomena.
Question 1 : Which one of the following best describes the word “epiphenomena” in the last sentence of the passage?
A. Phenomena amenable to analysis.
B. Phenomena supplemental to the evidence.
C. Overarching collections of images.
D. Visual phenomena of epic proportions.
Correct answer – B
Question 2 : All of the following statements may be considered valid inferences from the passage, EXCEPT:
A. artifacts are meaningful precisely because they help to construct the meanings of the world for us.
B. studying visual culture requires institutional structures without which the structures of perception cannot be analysed.
C. understanding the structures of perception is an important part of understanding how visual cultures work.
D. visual culture is not just about how we see, but also about how our visual practices can impact and change the world.
Correct answer – B
Question 3: “No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo.” In light of the passage, which one of the following interpretations of this sentence is the most accurate?
A. Social analytical accounts of people like Michelangelo or Leonardo cannot explain their genius.
B. Michelangelo or Leonardo cannot be subjected to social analysis because of their genius.
C. No analyses exist of Michelangelo’s or Leonardo’s social accounts.
D. Socially existing beings cannot be analysed, unlike the art of Michelangelo or Leonardo which can.
Correct answer – A
Question 4 : “Seeing . . . operates on the foundation of covenants with images that establish the conditions for meaningful visual experience.” In light of the passage, which one of the following statements best conveys the meaning of this sentence?
A. Sight becomes a meaningful visual experience because of covenants of meaningfulness that we establish with the images we see.
B. The way we experience sight is through images operated on by meaningful covenants.
C. Images are meaningful visual experiences when they have a foundation of covenants seeing them.
D. Sight as a meaningful visual experience is possible when there is a foundational condition established in images of covenants.
Correct answer – A
Question 5: Which set of keywords below most closely captures the arguments of the passage?
A. Visual Culture, Aesthetic Value, Lay Audience, Visual Experience.
B. Scholars, Social Analysis, Michelangelo and Leonardo, Interpretive Devices. C. Imagery, Visual Practices, Lifeworlds, Structures of Perception.
D. Visual Construction of Reality, Work of Genius, Ethnography, Epiphenomena.
Correct answer – C
DILR
Twenty five coloured beads are to be arranged in a grid comprising of five rows and five columns. Each cell in the grid must contain exactly one bead. Each bead is coloured either Red, Blue or Green. While arranging the beads along any of the five rows or along any of the five columns, the rules given below are to be followed:
1. Two adjacent beads along the same row or column are always of different colours. 2. There is at least one Green bead between any two Blue beads along the same row or column. 3. There is at least one Blue and at least one Green bead between any two Red beads along the same row or column.
Every unique, complete arrangement of twenty five beads is called a configuration.
Question 1: The total number of possible congurations using beads of only two colours is:
Correct Answer: 2
Question 2: What is the maximum possible number of Red beads that can appear in any conguration?
Correct Answer: 9
Question 3 : What is the minimum number of Blue beads in any conguration?
Correct Answer: 6
Explanatory Answer
Question 4 : Two Red beads have been placed in ‘second row, third column’ and ‘third row, second column’. How many more Red beads can be placed so as to maximise the number of Red beads used in the configuration?
Correct Answer: 6
QA
Q1) A sum of money is split among Amal, Sunil and Mita so that the ratio of the shares of Amal and Sunil is 3:2, while the ratio of the shares of Sunil and Mita is 4:5. If the difference between the largest and the smallest of these three shares is Rs 400, then Sunil’s share, in rupees, is
Correct answer – 800
Q2) The number of pairs of integers (x, y) satisfy x ≥ y ≥ – 20 and 2x + 5y = 99 is Correct answer – 17
Q.3) The number of integers that satisfy the equality (x2– 5x + 7)x+1 = 1
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Correct answer – C
Q4) For the same principal amount, the compound interest for two years at 5% per annum exceeds the simple interest for three years at 3% per annum by Rs. 1125.Then the principal amount in rupees is
Correct answer – 90000
Q5) Aron bought some pencils and sharpeners. Spending the same amount of money as Aron, Aditya bought twice as many pencils and 10 less sharpeners. If the cost of one sharpener is Rs. 2 more than the cost of a pencil, then the minimum possible number of pencils bought by Aron and Aditya together is
A. 36
B. 33
C. 30
D. 27
Correct answer – B
Q.6) In May, John bought the same amount of rice and the same amount of wheat as he had bought in April, but spent Rs. 150 more due to price increase of rice and wheat by 20%and 12%, respectively. If John had spent Rs. 450 on rice in April, then how much did he spend on wheat in May?
A. Rs. 560
B. Rs. 570
C. Rs. 580
D. Rs. 590
Correct answer – A
CAT 2020 Slot 3 Question Paper: Questions Asked
Check the CAT 2020 Slot 3 Question Paper with solutions for VARC, DILR, and QA shared below:
VARC
The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
Mode of transportation affects the travel experience and thus can produce new types of travel writing and perhaps even new “identities.” Modes of transportation determine the types and duration of social encounters; affect the organization and passage of space and time; . . . and also affect perception and knowledge—how and what the traveler comes to know and write about. The completion of the first U.S. transcontinental highway during the 1920s . . . for example, inaugurated a new genre of travel literature about the United States—the automotive or road narrative. Such narratives highlight the experiences of mostly male protagonists “discovering themselves” on their journeys, emphasizing the independence of road travel and the value of rural folk traditions.
Travel writing’s relationship to empire building— as a type of “colonialist discourse”—has drawn the most attention from academicians. Close connections have been observed between European (and American) political, economic, and administrative goals for the colonies and their manifestations in the cultural practice of writing travel books. Travel writers’ descriptions of foreign places have been analyzed as attempts to validate, promote, or challenge the ideologies and practices of colonial or imperial domination and expansion. Mary Louise Pratt’s study of the genres and conventions of 18th- and 19th-century exploration narratives about South America and Africa (e.g., the “monarch of all I survey” trope) offered ways of thinking about travel writing as embedded within relations of power between metropole and periphery, as did Edward Said’s theories of representation and cultural imperialism. Particularly Said’s book, Orientalism, helped scholars understand ways in which representations of people in travel texts were intimately bound up with notions of self, in this case, that the Occident defined itself through essentialist, ethnocentric, and racist representations of the Orient. Said’s work became a model for demonstrating cultural forms of imperialism in travel texts, showing how the political, economic, or administrative fact of dominance relies on legitimating discourses such as those articulated through travel writing. . . .
Feminist geographers’ studies of travel writing challenge the masculinist history of geography by questioning who and what are relevant subjects of geographic study and, indeed, what counts as geographic knowledge itself. Such questions are worked through ideological constructs that posit men as explorers and women as travelers—or, conversely, men as travelers and women as tied to the home. Studies of Victorian women who were professional travel writers, tourists, wives of colonial administrators, and other (mostly) elite women who wrote narratives about their experiences abroad during the 19th century have been particularly revealing. From a “liberal” feminist perspective, travel presented one means toward female liberation for middle and upper-class Victorian women. Many studies from the 1970s onward demonstrated the ways in which women’s gendered identities were negotiated differently “at home” than they were “away,” thereby showing women’s self-development through travel. The more recent poststructural turn in studies of Victorian travel writing has focused attention on women’s diverse and fragmented identities as they narrated their travel experiences, emphasizing women’s sense of themselves as women in new locations, but only as they worked through their ties to nation, class, whiteness, and colonial and imperial power structures.
Question 1 : From the passage, we can infer that feminist scholars’ understanding of the experiences of Victorian women travellers is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT scholars’:
A. awareness of the ways in which identity is formed.
B. perspective that they bring to their research.
C. knowledge of class tensions in Victorian society.
D. awareness of gender issues in Victorian society.
Correct answer – C
Question 2 : From the passage, we can infer that travel writing is most similar to: A. political journalism.
B. historical fiction.
C. autobiographical writing.
D. feminist writing.
Correct answer – C
Question 3 : From the passage, it can be inferred that scholars argue that Victorian women experienced self-development through their travels because:
A. their identity was redefined when they were away from home.
B. they were from the progressive middle- and upper-classes of society. C. they were on a quest to discover their diverse identities.
D. they developed a feminist perspective of the world.
Correct answer – A
Question 4 : American travel literature of the 1920s:
A. celebrated the freedom that travel gives.
B. developed the male protagonists’ desire for independence.
C. presented travellers’ discovery of their identity as different from others. D. showed participation in local traditions.
Correct answer – A
Question 5 : According to the passage, Said’s book, “Orientalism”:
A. explained the difference between the representation of people and the actual fact. B. demonstrated how cultural imperialism was used to justify colonial domination. C. argued that cultural imperialism was more significant than colonial domination. D. illustrated how narrow minded and racist westerners were.
Correct answer – B
DILR
The Hi-Lo game is a four-player game played in six rounds. In every round, each player chooses to bid Hi or Lo. The bids are made simultaneously. If all four bid Hi, then all four lose 1 point each. If three players bid Hi and one bids Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 1 point each and the player bidding Lo loses 3 points. If two players bid Hi and two bid Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 2 points each and the players bidding Lo lose 2 points each. If one player bids Hi and three bid Lo, then the player bidding Hi gains 3 points and the players bidding Lo lose 1 point each. If all four bid Lo, then all four gain 1 point each.
Four players Arun, Bankim, Charu, and Dipak played the Hi-Lo game. The following facts are known about their game:
1. At the end of three rounds, Arun had scored 6 points, Dipak had scored 2 points, Bankim and Charu had scored -2 points each.
2. At the end of six rounds, Arun had scored 7 points, Bankim and Dipak had scored -1 point each, and Charu had scored -5 points.
3. Dipak’s score in the third round was less than his score in the first round but was more than his score in the second round.
4. In exactly two out of the six rounds, Arun was the only player who bid Hi.
Question 1: What were the bids by Arun, Bankim, Charu and Dipak, respectively in the first round?
A. Hi, Lo, Lo, Lo
B. Lo, Lo, Lo, Hi
C. Hi, Lo, Lo, Hi
D. Hi, Hi, Lo, Lo
Correct answer – C
Question 2: In how many rounds did Arun bid Hi?
Correct answer – 4
Question 3: In how many rounds did Bankim bid Lo?
Correct answer – 4
Question 4: In how many rounds did all four players make identical bids?
Correct answer – 2
Question 5: In how many rounds did Dipak gain exactly 1 point?
Correct answer – 1
Question 6: In which of the following rounds, was Arun DEFINITELY the only player to bid Hi?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. First
Correct answer – A
QA
Question 1: If x1 = −1 and xm = xm+1 + (m + 1) for every positive integer m, then x100 equals
A. −5050
B. −5051
C. −5150
D. −5151
Correct Answer: A. −5050
Question 2 : Let N, x and y be positive integers such that N = x + y, 2 < x < 10 and 14 < y < 23. If N> 25, then how many distinct values are possible for N?
Correct answer – 6
Question 3: A contractor agreed to construct a 6 km road in 200 days. He employed 140 persons for the work. After 60 days, he realized that only 1.5 km road has been completed. How many additional people would he need to employ in order to finish the work exactly on time?
Answer: 40 additional people.
Question 4: The area, in sq. units, enclosed by the lines x = 2, y = |x − 2| + 4, the X-axis and the Y-axis is equal to
A. 12
B. 8
C. 6
D. 10
Correct Answer: D. 10
Q5. How many of the integers 1, 2, … , 120, are divisible by none of 2, 5 and 7?
A. 41
B. 42
C. 40
D. 43
Correct Answer: A. 41
CAT 2020 Question Paper Analysis for CAT 2026 Preparation
The three CAT 2020 slots show why candidates should not prepare only around the expected difficulty of one section. The distribution of challenging questions can change how much time it takes to solve a section.
VARC: Focus on Reading Accuracy and Question Selection
The VARC section included RC passages that required careful reading. Critical reasoning-based questions also added to the challenge.
For CAT 2026 preparation, solving the CAT 2020 VARC questions can help candidates identify whether they are spending too much time understanding a passage or evaluating individual answer choices. The objective should be to improve both reading speed and accuracy.
When analysing an RC set, note:
- Time taken to read the passage
- Number of questions attempted
- Correct and incorrect responses
- Time spent between answer choices
- Questions that could have been skipped earlier
This analysis is more useful than simply calculating the overall VARC score.
DILR: Practise Set Selection Under Time Pressure
DILR was one of the major differentiating areas in CAT 2020, particularly in the more difficult slot. Several sets required considerable calculation or logical processing, making time management important.
For CAT 2026, candidates should use the 2020 DILR questions to practise set selection. Before starting a set, quickly assess its structure, the number of conditions and the amount of calculation involved.
After every practice attempt, classify each set as:
- Easy to identify and solve
- Easy to identify but time-consuming
- Difficult but solvable
- Not worth attempting under exam conditions
This classification can help candidates build a practical DILR selection strategy instead of trying to solve every set they encounter.
QA: Strengthen Arithmetic, Algebra and Geometry
The QA section ranged from moderate to difficult, with questions based on areas such as arithmetic, algebra and geometry.
Candidates preparing with CAT 2020 QA should not only count the number of questions they solve. They should identify the concepts behind the questions they could not solve.
For example, maintain separate records for:
- Conceptual mistakes
- Calculation errors
- Questions taking too long
- Questions skipped despite being solvable
This will show whether the problem is a lack of concepts, slow calculations or poor question selection.
How to Use CAT 2020 Question Papers for CAT 2026 Preparation
Simply solving the three CAT 2020 papers once will not provide the full benefit. The papers should be used in different stages of preparation.
1. Attempt Each Slot in a 120-Minute Setting
Do not divide a paper into separate section-wise practice sessions during the first attempt. Recreate the CAT environment as closely as possible.
Follow the 40-minute limit for VARC, DILR and QA. Do not use extra time for one section after its window closes.
2. Calculate Your Section-Wise Accuracy
After completing a paper, calculate your accuracy separately for all three sections.
A basic analysis can include:
Accuracy = Correct Attempts ÷ Total Attempts × 100
This will help you distinguish between a low score caused by fewer attempts and one caused by excessive incorrect answers.
3. Revisit Questions You Left Unattempted
Do not immediately check the solutions for every unanswered question. First, try the questions again without a time limit.
If you solve the question during the second attempt, mark it as a time-management issue. If you still cannot solve it, identify the relevant topic and revise that area.
4. Compare the Three CAT 2020 Slots
The three papers can be used to test how your performance changes with difficulty.
For example, compare:
| Parameter | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 |
| Attempts | Record | Record | Record |
| Correct Answers | Record | Record | Record |
| Incorrect Answers | Record | Record | Record |
| Accuracy | Calculate | Calculate | Calculate |
| Time Management | Analyse | Analyse | Analyse |
The purpose is not to decide which slot was “best” for you. It is to find whether your performance falls when the paper becomes more difficult.
5. Build a Question-Solving Priority List
CAT 2020 can also be used to improve your order of attempts. During analysis, mark questions as quick wins, moderate-time questions and high-time questions.
Your final strategy should prioritise questions where you have a strong chance of getting the answer within a reasonable amount of time. This becomes important in CAT 2026 because candidates cannot carry unused time from one section into another.
6. Use the Toughest Paper for Final-Level Practice
Once you have completed the three papers individually, use the most challenging CAT 2020 slot as an advanced practice test.
The objective at this stage should not be to solve every question. Check whether you can maintain accuracy when several questions appear time-consuming or unfamiliar.
Conclusion
With CAT 2026 scheduled for November 29, candidates have a useful set of three CAT 2020 papers conducted by IIM Indore to test their preparation.
The biggest benefit comes from analysing these papers beyond the final score. This includes your accuracy, time spent on individual questions and ability to leave low-value questions.
Candidates looking for structured preparation can also consider the MBA Karo CAT Course for concept building, practice and exam-focused preparation.
Combining guided learning with previous-year paper analysis can help create a more measurable CAT 2026 preparation plan.
FAQs on CAT 2020 Papers for CAT 2026 Preparation
Q. Is CAT 2020 useful for CAT 2026 preparation?
A. Yes. CAT 2020 provides three complete papers from different slots. This makes them useful for practising question selection, accuracy and time management under varied difficulty levels.
Q. Which CAT 2020 slot was the toughest?
A. Among the three slots, Slot 3 was considered the toughest because of the difficulty and time requirements in DILR and VARC.
Q. How many questions are there in CAT 2026?
A. CAT 2026 will have 68 questions: 24 in VARC, 22 in DILR and 22 in QA.
Q. Can I use CAT 2020 papers as mock tests?
A. Yes. Attempt each paper within the prescribed 120-minute duration, with 40 minutes allotted to each section. Analyse your performance after completing the test.
Q. How should I analyse CAT 2020 papers before CAT 2026?
A. Analyse each paper section-wise for attempts, accuracy, time spent, mistakes and unanswered questions. Then compare your performance across all three slots to identify your weak areas and question-selection problems.
