CAT 50 Day Streak Day 34

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CAT 50 Day Streak – Day 34

30 questions across VARC, DILR & QA · +3 for a correct answer · −1 for a wrong MCQ · no negative marking for TITA

0/30Attempted

0Correct

0Wrong

0Score / 90

VARC · Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension

Q1 – Q10 0/10

Passage · Q1 – Q4

Attention has become a currency – traded, spent and depleted in an always-on world of pings, swipes and scrolls. In the past two decades, as the digital tide has risen, diagnoses of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) haven’t merely inched up: they have more than doubled in adults and climbed by two-thirds in children, according to large US cohort studies. The coincidence is striking and worth unpacking.

ADHD has long been seen as a neurodevelopmental condition, typically showing up in childhood with hallmarks like distractibility, impulsivity and restlessness. For years, scientists have known that this condition runs in families; genetics plays a big role. Stimulant medications like Ritalin (methylphenidate) and Adderall (mixed amphetamine salts) – both of which boost the brain’s dopamine, a chemical messenger tied to focus and reward – are mainstays of treatment. They are often very helpful for those who need them. This is the ‘classical’ form of ADHD, one that is thought to be wired into the brain from early on. People with this condition might struggle to sit still or to finish a task, but with the right support (structure, medication) they often thrive. Their self-control and focus commonly improve as they mature.

Recently, though, we have been making a case that a broader conceptualisation of ADHD is warranted. In our work as psychiatrists, we began seeing a subset of patients whose ADHD-related symptoms were barely nudged using the usual stimulant-plus-structure playbook. This pattern signalled an attention dysregulation that requires different remedies from the classical approach – and, in turn, a shift in how we understand the disorder.

Rather than being a single, uniform condition, we believe ADHD is best understood through a spectrum model. This spectrum is anchored at one end by a form rooted in biology, and at the other end by patterns that are shaped by modern digital life. We call these poles Type I and Type II ADHD. Most people fall somewhere between these poles, with both biology and environment shaping their attention to some degree. But we can use the two labels to distinguish cases based on what seems to be the predominant factor. Type I ADHD, the classical form, reflects neurodevelopmental traits. But for someone who is more Type II, the dysregulation may emerge later, driven largely by overstimulation in a screen-saturated world.

This framework offers a new way to understand why attention struggles are rising – and how care might evolve in response. Picture someone who got through childhood without attention issues, only to develop them later, in their teens or 20s. They’re impulsive, scattered, easily pulled off track, but this isn’t how they’ve always been. What’s changed? Often, it’s their digital environment. Hours spent flipping between apps, scrolling through short reels, chasing social media likes or juggling screens might have disrupted their brain’s ability to regulate attention, prioritising rapid stimulation. Over time, this could have weakened their capacity for slower tasks, like reading a book, following a talk or even watching a slower movie.

Q1MCQ

It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that the usual stimulant-plus-structure playbook is:

Aa new, experimental therapy that the authors are developing in response to the digital tide.

Ba comprehensive treatment plan that is most effective when combined with a significant reduction in screen time.

Cmost effective for patients whose symptoms are consistent with the classical form of ADHD (Type I).

Dan outdated and harmful approach that is responsible for the emergence of Type II ADHD.

Solution Answer: C

Stimulants and structure are the “mainstays of treatment” for classical ADHD, and with that support patients “often thrive”. The authors then saw a subset whose symptoms were “barely nudged” by the same playbook, which suggests it works best for Type I.

A: it is the established treatment, not a new one. B: the passage never pairs it with less screen time. D: it is called “often very helpful”, never harmful or a cause of Type II.

Q2MCQ

The author mentions ‘reading a book’ and ‘watching a slower movie’ primarily to:

Aillustrate the mechanism by which Type II ADHD weakens the capacity for tasks that do not provide rapid stimulation.

Bprovide examples of activities that can be used as therapies to reverse the cognitive effects of Type II ADHD.

Ccontrast the intellectual habits of previous generations with the shallow digital habits of today.

Dsuggest that individuals with Type I ADHD do not struggle with these specific activities.

Solution Answer: A

The examples come right after the claim that digital habits prioritise “rapid stimulation” and “could have weakened their capacity for slower tasks”. Reading a book and watching a slower movie are examples of those slower tasks.

B: they are presented as casualties, not therapies. C: there is no comparison between generations. D: Type I isn’t discussed in that sentence.

Q3MCQ

Which of the following cases best illustrates the Type II ADHD described in the passage?

AA 25-year-old who reports feeling scattered and impulsive but whose symptoms are found to be a result of high stress and poor sleep, not attention dysregulation.

BA 45-year-old adult who has successfully managed lifelong impulsivity and restlessness with medication and structure.

CA 30-year-old who, after a traumatic brain injury, develops symptoms of distractibility and poor focus.

DA 22-year-old who was an excellent student in childhood but, after years of heavy digital media use, now finds it impossible to focus on academic reading and is easily pulled off track.

Solution Answer: D

Type II emerges later, in the teens or 20s, in someone who had no childhood attention problems, and is driven by a screen-saturated environment. D matches every element.

A: the passage rules out attention dysregulation as the cause. B: lifelong symptoms managed with medication describe Type I. C: the cause is a brain injury, not digital overstimulation.

Q4MCQ

Which of the following best describes the logical structure of the passage?

AA common disorder is defined, its historical origins are traced, and its modern treatments are compared and contrasted.

BA controversial hypothesis is proposed, followed by several pieces of empirical evidence in its favor, and a concluding call to action.

CAn alarming trend is identified, the limitations of a traditional explanation are outlined, and a new, more comprehensive model is proposed.

DA scientific model is explained in detail, and its application is then illustrated through a series of hypothetical case studies.

Solution Answer: C

The passage opens with a trend (ADHD diagnoses doubling alongside the digital tide). It then describes the classical view and its limit (patients “barely nudged” by the usual treatment). Finally it proposes the Type I–Type II spectrum model.

A: there is no historical tracing or comparison of treatments. B: there’s no call to action and little empirical evidence. D: the passage starts with a trend, not a model, and gives only one hypothetical case.

Q5MCQ

There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.

Sentence Today, after another decades-long decline in the rural economy, that rough political parity is gone.

Paragraph ___(1)___. For the first time in U.S. history, only one political party dominates rural and small-town America, and that is the GOP. ___(2)___. Voters in rural counties comprise only about 20 percent of the U.S. electorate. ___(3)___. But because institutions like the Senate and the Electoral College overweight small places, Republican dominance of those counties gives the GOP an extra dollop of power that it could not otherwise command, and that no other party has ever enjoyed. ___(4)___. At the same time, it makes winning nationally a much steeper climb for Democrats, and harder for them to govern when they do.

AOption 1

BOption 2

COption 3

DOption 4

Solution Answer: A (Option 1)

“That rough political parity is gone” announces that rural America is no longer split between parties. The next sentence spells it out: “For the first time … only one political party dominates rural and small-town America”. So the sentence belongs at blank 1, opening the paragraph.

By blanks 2–4 the paragraph has moved on to electorate share and institutional power. Announcing the loss of parity there would come after its own explanation.

Q6TITA

Five jumbled-up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

Over the century following the American Revolution, Grafton residents demonstrated mastery of their domain by transforming it into New Hampshire’s most intensively farmed region.
In 1868, they banded together to protect their livestock from a bushy-tailed black wolf described in the local newspaper as four feet tall and seven feet long.
They denuded hills and covered them with sweeping grasslands, hordes of sheep, and miles of stone walls.
Fittingly, when the town was incorporated in the late 1700s, it took its name from the third Duke of Grafton.
People built homes, mills, two churches, 12 schoolhouses, and several mines, including one that, in 1887, produced a 2,900-pound aquamarine crystal, the biggest ever found in the nation at that point.

Solution Answer: 4

The coherent paragraph is 1 → 3 → 5 → 2:

1: Residents transformed Grafton into an intensively farmed region.
3: “They” denuded hills and filled them with grasslands, sheep and stone walls.
5: People also built homes, mills, schools and mines.
2: In 1868 “they” banded together to protect their livestock from a wolf.

Sentence 4 is about where the town’s name comes from. The other four describe how residents mastered and developed the land, and “Fittingly” has nothing in them to refer to.

Q7MCQ

The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

Passage If we think closely about anger, we can begin to see why it is a stupid way to run one’s life. A good place to begin is Aristotle’s definition. He says that anger is a response to significant damage to something or someone one cares about, and a damage that the angry person believes to have been wrongfully inflicted. He adds that although anger is painful, it also contains within itself a hope for payback. So: significant damage to one’s own values or circle of cares, and wrongfulness. All this seems both true and uncontroversial. More controversial, perhaps, is his idea that the angry person wants some type of payback, and that this is a conceptual part of what anger is. In other words, if you don’t want some type of payback, your emotion is something else, but not really anger.

AAnger, though arising from perceived wrongful harm, is an irrational emotion because it inherently seeks payback rather than resolution.

BAristotle’s definition shows that anger results from personal loss and wrongful harm, and necessarily involves a desire for retaliation.

CWhile anger can be painful, it serves an important role by motivating people to defend what they value against injustice.

DAristotle’s view of anger as a desire for revenge is controversial because modern psychology sees anger as a healthy emotional response.

Solution Answer: B

Most of the passage unpacks Aristotle’s definition: damage to what one cares about, believed to be wrongful, plus a built-in desire for payback that is “a conceptual part of what anger is”. B captures these elements.

A adds a contrast with “resolution” that the passage never makes. C gives anger a positive role, which contradicts “a stupid way to run one’s life”. D brings in modern psychology, which isn’t mentioned.

Q8MCQ

There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.

Sentence Mily had advocated to expand the law to protect unmarried survivors, and the U visa passed with bipartisan support under a condition: Victims could apply if they helped with the investigation or prosecution of the crime.

Paragraph The same year Valentina met Mily, the government began offering new protection to immigrants who had been abused. ___(1)___. As part of a reauthorization of the Violence Against Women Act, the U visa was created, and it provided immigrant victims of violent crimes with a path to permanent residency. ___(2)___. When the Violence Against Women Act was first passed, in 1994, that relief was only available to immigrant survivors abused by violent spouses who were U.S. citizens or permanent residents. ___(3)___. Most of the women Líderes worked with weren’t married to legal residents; many weren’t married at all. ___(4)___. It was a major win.

AOption 1

BOption 2

COption 3

DOption 4

Solution Answer: D (Option 4)

The paragraph sets up a problem: the 1994 law covered only married survivors, yet most of Líderes’ women “weren’t married at all”. The sentence gives the fix (Mily pushed to cover unmarried survivors, and the U visa passed). “It was a major win” then praises that outcome.

At blanks 1–3, the limitation to married survivors hasn’t been fully set up yet, so the solution would arrive before the problem.

Q9TITA

What’s more, sometimes different kinds of moral good straight-up conflict with each other.
And the more you try to force yourself to be that, the harder it’ll be for you to actually help others, because you’ll just be so burned out.
It can even lead to paralysis.
As you’ve already discovered, the optimizing mindset is exhausting — you end up expending a lot of precious mental resources that you could be spending on something else.
Given that this complexity is baked into the human condition, it’s impossible to be a perfect optimizing machine.

Solution Answer: 1

Detailed solution coming soon.

Q10TITA

The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

Finally, on July 11, India’s air safety organization, the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB), issued a preliminary report into the cause of the disaster.
The 15-page report pinpointed a dark and disturbing factor as the reason for the crash: Shortly after takeoff, someone or something cut the flow of fuel to both engines, almost simultaneously.
The weeks that followed saw rampant speculation, AI-generated hoaxes, and conspiracy theories.
This caused a brief but fatal dual-engine shutdown that proved impossible for the plane to recover from.

Solution Answer: 3124

The order runs like this:

3: “The weeks that followed” the crash were full of speculation and hoaxes.
1: “Finally”, the AAIB issued its preliminary report.
2: “The 15-page report” said fuel to both engines was cut.
4: “This caused” the fatal dual-engine shutdown.

DILR · Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning

Q11 – Q20 0/10

Set 1 · Q11 – Q14

Six tourists Alex, Britney, Carlos, Diana, Eden and Fay, are to be assigned to four guides: Jatin, Kuldeep, Luis and Mohsin. Each tourist is assigned to exactly one guide, with at least one tourist assigned to each guide. Each tourist speaks exactly one of the languages spoken by his or her guide and speaks no other language.

Jatin speaks only Mandarin.
Kuldeep speaks only French and Spanish.
Luis speaks only Mandarin and French.
Mohsin speaks only Spanish and Arabic.

The following rules govern the assignment of the tourists to the guides:

At least Alex and Britney are assigned to Luis.
At least Diana is assigned to Mohsin.
If Carlos is assigned to Kuldeep, then Eden speaks Mandarin.

Q11MCQ

Which one of the following must be true?

AKuldeep is assigned fewer than two of the tourists

BLuis is assigned exactly two of the tourists

CJatin is assigned exactly one of the tourists

DMohsin is assigned fewer than three of the tourists

Solution Answer: D

Fixed. Alex and Britney go to Luis, and Diana goes to Mohsin.
Free. Carlos, Eden and Fay remain. Jatin and Kuldeep each need at least one of them, so at most one of the three can go anywhere else.
Consequence. Mohsin gets Diana plus at most one more, so at most 2 tourists. D must be true.

A is false if Kuldeep gets Eden and Fay (with Carlos at Jatin). B is false if the spare tourist goes to Luis. C is false if Jatin gets two.

Q12TITA

If Diana and Fay speak the same language as each other, what is the maximum number of tourists who could speak French?

Solution Answer: 3

Diana (with Mohsin) speaks Spanish or Arabic, so Fay does too, and neither speaks French. Jatin needs a Mandarin speaker, which must be Carlos or Eden.

The best case: Alex and Britney speak French with Luis, Carlos speaks French with Kuldeep, and Eden goes to Jatin and speaks Mandarin (which satisfies the Carlos–Kuldeep rule). Maximum French speakers = 3.

Q13MCQ

If exactly two tourists are assigned to Kuldeep, then which of the following could be true?

AEden speaks Mandarin, and Carlos speaks Spanish

BFay speaks Mandarin, and Eden speaks Mandarin

CFay speaks Mandarin, and Carlos speaks French

DEden speaks Spanish, and Carlos speaks Spanish

Solution Answer: A

Two of Carlos, Eden and Fay go to Kuldeep and one goes to Jatin. If Carlos is at Kuldeep, Eden must speak Mandarin, so Eden must be at Jatin. The possibilities are Kuldeep {Carlos, Fay} with Jatin Eden, or Kuldeep {Eden, Fay} with Jatin Carlos.

A: Kuldeep {Carlos, Fay} with Carlos speaking Spanish, and Eden at Jatin speaking Mandarin ✓
B and C: Fay is always at Kuldeep, so she can’t speak Mandarin ✗
D: Eden and Carlos would both be at Kuldeep, which breaks the rule ✗

Q14MCQ

If Alex, Britney, Eden, and Fay all speak the same language as each other, then which one of the following could be true?

ACarlos speaks Arabic

BExactly two of the tourists speak French

CCarlos speaks Mandarin

DExactly two of the tourists speak Arabic

Solution Answer: C

Alex and Britney speak Mandarin or French, so Eden and Fay speak the same.

All Mandarin. Eden and Fay are at Jatin or Luis, so Carlos must be at Kuldeep (French or Spanish). French speakers: 0 or 1.
All French. Eden and Fay are at Kuldeep or Luis, so Carlos must be at Jatin and speaks Mandarin. French speakers: 4.

A: Carlos is only ever at Jatin or Kuldeep, so he can’t speak Arabic ✗. B: French speakers are 0, 1 or 4, never exactly two ✗. C: possible in the all-French case ✓. D: only Diana can speak Arabic ✗.

Set 2 · Q15 – Q20

Mili, Ehsan, Ruby, Ishwar, Tina and Sonu are the top 6 students of an MBA college. They appeared in their trimester examination comprising 5 subjects: Organizational Behaviour (OB), Quantitative Methods (QM), Managerial Economics (ME), Financial Accounting (FA) and Business Communication (BC).

The table below gives their GPA in the five subjects. The GPA is calculated in the following manner:

GPA of a student = 10 × Score of the studentMax score in that subject

	OB	QM	ME	FA	BC
Mili	9.5	8.67	8.67	8	7.86
Ehsan	8	8.4	7.67	10	9.17
Ruby	9	10	9	8.5	7.5
Ishwar	7.75	8.8	7	9.25	10
Tina	10	8	7.78	8.75	8.33
Sonu	8.75	7.6	10	8.25	8.57

The maximum marks in all subjects are 100.
The marks obtained by every student in all subjects are integers greater than 50 but less than 100.
The marks obtained by Tina in all subjects are multiples of 10.

Q15MCQ

Who was the topper of the class?

AMili

BRuby

CTina

DEhsan

Solution Answer: B

A student with GPA 10 holds the subject’s top score M. Every other score = GPA × M/10 must be a whole number from 51 to 99, and Tina’s scores must be multiples of 10.

OB (Tina tops). 7.75 = 31/40, 8.75 = 7/8 and 9.5 = 19/20, so M is a multiple of 40. Tina’s M is a multiple of 10 in 51–99, so M = 80.
QM (Ruby tops). 8.4, 8.8 and 7.6 need M to be a multiple of 25; 8.67 = 13/15 needs a multiple of 15. So M = 75 (Tina 60).
ME (Sonu tops). 7.67 = 23/30 and 7.78 = 7/9, so M = 90 (Tina 70).
FA (Ehsan tops). 9.25, 8.75 and 8.25 need a multiple of 40, so M = 80 (Tina 70).
BC (Ishwar tops). 7.86 = 11/14, 9.17 = 11/12, 8.33 = 5/6 and 8.57 = 6/7, so M = 84 (Tina 70).

Marks	OB	QM	ME	FA	BC	Total
Mili	76	65	78	64	66	349
Ehsan	64	63	69	80	77	353
Ruby	72	75	81	68	63	359
Ishwar	62	66	63	74	84	349
Tina	80	60	70	70	70	350
Sonu	70	57	90	66	72	355

The topper is Ruby with 359.

Q16MCQ

The highest marks scored by any student were in which subject?

ABC

BFA

COB

DME

Solution Answer: D

From the table in Q15, the subject toppers scored 80 (OB), 75 (QM), 90 (ME), 80 (FA) and 84 (BC). The highest is Sonu’s 90 in ME.

Q17TITA

What is the lowest score obtained by any of these students in a subject?

Solution Answer: 57

From the table in Q15, the lowest score is Sonu’s 57 in QM.

Q18MCQ

What are the total marks obtained by Mili?

A365

B356

C349

D343

Solution Answer: C

From the table in Q15: 76 + 65 + 78 + 64 + 66 = 349.

Q19MCQ

What is the difference between the median and mean score of Sonu?

Solution Answer: A

Sonu’s scores in order: 57, 66, 70, 72, 90. Median = 70 and mean = 355/5 = 71. Difference = 1.

Q20TITA

How many of them scored less than 80 marks in all subjects?

Solution Answer: 1

From the table in Q15, each student’s highest score is: Mili 78, Ehsan 80, Ruby 81, Ishwar 84, Tina 80, Sonu 90. Only Mili stays below 80 in every subject, so the answer is 1.

QA · Quantitative Ability

Q21 – Q30 0/10

Q21TITA

Let ABCD be a rectangle in which AB + BC + CD = 20 and AE = 9, where E is the mid-point of the side BC. Find the area of the rectangle.

Solution Answer: 19

Let AB = l and BE = m (so BC = 2m). Then 2l + 2m = 20, so l + m = 10. In right triangle ABE, l² + m² = 81.

2lm = (l + m)² − (l² + m²) = 100 − 81 = 19. Area = l × 2m = 19.

Q22MCQ

f(x) is a cubic function. If f(1) = 2, f(2) = 4, f(3) = 8, f(4) = 16, what is the value of f(5)?

A28

B30

C32

D36

Solution Answer: B

For a cubic, the third differences are constant. First differences: 2, 4, 8. Second differences: 2, 4. Third difference: 2.

Extending: the next second difference is 6, the next first difference is 14, so f(5) = 16 + 14 = 30.

Q23MCQ

Seven years ago, the ratio of the age of Ritik to that of Satish was 3:5. The ratio of the present age of Satish to that of Tarak is 4:5. If the sum of the present ages of Ritik and Tarak is 62 years, find the difference between the ages of Ritik and Satish.

A5 years

B6 years

C8 years

D10 years

Solution Answer: D

Present ages: Ritik = 3k + 7, Satish = 5k + 7, Tarak = 5(5k + 7)/4.

(3k + 7) + (25k + 35)/4 = 62 gives 37k = 185, so k = 5. Ritik = 22, Satish = 32 (and Tarak = 40).

Difference = 10 years.

Q24MCQ

If the difference between the roots of the equation x² + ax + 1 = 0 is less than √5, then the set of possible values of a is

A(−3, 3)

B(3, ∞)

C(−3, ∞)

D(−∞, −3)

Solution Answer: A

Difference of roots = √(a² − 4·1·1) = √(a² − 4). The condition √(a² − 4) < √5 gives a² < 9, so a ∈ (−3, 3).

(For |a| < 2 the roots are complex. The intended answer applies the condition algebraically, and (−3, 3) is the only option consistent with a² < 9.)

Q25MCQ

The number of ways of dividing 15 men and 15 women into 15 couples, each consisting of a man and a woman, is

A900

B1050

C1240

D1320

Solution Answer: C

Detailed solution coming soon.

Q26TITA

Piyush and Ashish together can complete a piece of work in 60 days, while Ashish and Nina together can complete the same work in 80 days. If Piyush alone works for 25 days and Ashish alone works for 35 days, then Nina alone will complete the remaining work in 65 days. In how many days will Piyush, Ashish, and Nina together complete the whole work?

Solution Answer: 40

Let the work = 1. Then p + a = 1/60 and a + n = 1/80.

25p + 35a + 65n = 25(p + a) + 10(a + n) + 55n = 25/60 + 10/80 + 55n = 1. So 55n = 1 − 13/24 = 11/24, and n = 1/120.

a = 1/80 − 1/120 = 1/240 and p = 1/60 − 1/240 = 1/80. Together: 1/80 + 1/240 + 1/120 = 6/240 = 1/40, so 40 days.

Q27MCQ

Concentric circles of radii 1, 2, 3, …, 100 cm are drawn. The interior of the smallest circle is coloured red, and the angular regions are coloured alternately green and red, so that no two adjacent regions are of the same colour. Then, the total area of the green regions is equal to

A4950π sq cm

B5000π sq cm

C5050π sq cm

D5250π sq cm

Solution Answer: C

The ring between radii k − 1 and k has area π(k² − (k − 1)²) = π(2k − 1). The disc (k = 1) is red, so the green rings are those with even k = 2, 4, …, 100.

Green area = π Σ (4j − 1) for j = 1 to 50 = π(4 × 1275 − 50) = 5050π sq cm.

Q28TITA

p and q are primes such that 2p³ − q² = 2(p + q)². What is the sum p + q?

Solution Answer: 5

The right side is even, so q² must be even, which makes q = 2.

Then 2p³ − 4 = 2(p + 2)², i.e. p³ − p² − 4p − 6 = 0, and p = 3 works (27 − 9 − 12 − 6 = 0).

Check: 54 − 4 = 50 = 2 × 25 ✓. p + q = 5.

Q29MCQ

Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. Let P and S be points on AB and AC, respectively and let Q and R be points on BC such that PQRS is a rectangle. If PQ = √3 PS and the area of PQRS is 28√3 square units, what is the length of PC?

A7√3

B14

C14√3

D21

Solution Answer: B

Let PS = x, so PQ = √3x. Area = √3x² = 28√3, so x² = 28.

Triangle APS is equilateral with side x. In triangle PBQ, BQ = PQ/tan 60° = x. So BC = x + x + x = 3x.

Place B at the origin: P = (x, √3x) and C = (3x, 0). PC = √((2x)² + 3x²) = √7·x = √7 × √28 = 14.

Q30MCQ

12 litres are drawn from a flask containing juice and then replaced with water. This operation is repeated 3 more times. The ratio of the quantity of juice left to the total solution is 256:2401. How much juice did the flask originally contain?

A21

B24

C27

D28

Solution Answer: D

After 4 operations, the juice fraction is (1 − 12/V)⁴ = 256/2401 = (4/7)⁴.

1 − 12/V = 4/7, so 12/V = 3/7 and V = 28 litres.

Day 34 complete! 🔥

0 / 90

Correct: 0 · Wrong: 0 · Accuracy: 0%

Keep the streak alive. See you tomorrow for Day 35.

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